
GreenDaddy1
Rock Star
Silver Level
Villian Stats (VPIP/PFR/AF): 8/10/1
5nl SNAP. 171 hands on villain. 8/10/1. 3 Bet only 3 times in 65 opportunities.
Pacific Poker - $0.05 NL FAST (6 max) - Holdem - 6 players
Hand converted by PokerTracker 4
BTN: 202.6 BB
SB: 88.4 BB
BB: 36.8 BB
UTG: 116.8 BB
Hero (MP): 200.2 BB
CO: 65.8 BB
SB posts SB 0.4 BB, BB posts BB 1 BB
Pre Flop: (pot: 1.4 BB) Hero has 8♦ 8♥
fold, Hero raises to 3 BB, fold, fold, SB raises to 6 BB, fold, Hero calls 3 BB
Flop: (13 BB, 2 players) 8♠ 6♦ 7♣
SB bets 6.4 BB, Hero raises to 19.2 BB, SB calls 12.8 BB
Turn: (51.4 BB, 2 players) 9♠
SB bets 63.2 BB and is all-in, Hero calls 63.2 BB
The head scratcher for me here is whether he is doing this with an overpair and even some AK, which some will do in this pool, or if he is only jamming turn like this with exactly TX, in which case by the pure maths of the spot I dont think I am good to call with 20ish% equity vs 36% pot odds.
So my question is for spots like this: Do I put a massive nit villain (despite being a bad player in other ways) on exactly what he is representing and fold due to pot odds? I find it hard to rule out a stubborn shove with AA or KK on the turn, and the more 3 bet type hands I put in that he does this type of turn shove because he just cant let go of his overpair, the more I am inclined to call it off, because I can actually have a ton of equity here vs a basic tight/nitty 3 bet range. This is clearly not a good player, regardless of being a massive nit, so until I have proof he only ever makes this play with the nuts should I just be gritting my teeth and calling?
5nl SNAP. 171 hands on villain. 8/10/1. 3 Bet only 3 times in 65 opportunities.
Pacific Poker - $0.05 NL FAST (6 max) - Holdem - 6 players
Hand converted by PokerTracker 4
BTN: 202.6 BB
SB: 88.4 BB
BB: 36.8 BB
UTG: 116.8 BB
Hero (MP): 200.2 BB
CO: 65.8 BB
SB posts SB 0.4 BB, BB posts BB 1 BB
Pre Flop: (pot: 1.4 BB) Hero has 8♦ 8♥
fold, Hero raises to 3 BB, fold, fold, SB raises to 6 BB, fold, Hero calls 3 BB
Flop: (13 BB, 2 players) 8♠ 6♦ 7♣
SB bets 6.4 BB, Hero raises to 19.2 BB, SB calls 12.8 BB
Turn: (51.4 BB, 2 players) 9♠
SB bets 63.2 BB and is all-in, Hero calls 63.2 BB
River: (177.8 BB, 2 players) 6♠
SB shows T♣ J♦ (Straight, Jack High)
(Pre 47%, Flop 15%, Turn 77%)
Hero shows 8♦ 8♥ (Full House, Eights full of Sixes)
(Pre 53%, Flop 85%, Turn 23%)
Hero wins 167.4 BB
SB shows T♣ J♦ (Straight, Jack High)
(Pre 47%, Flop 15%, Turn 77%)
Hero shows 8♦ 8♥ (Full House, Eights full of Sixes)
(Pre 53%, Flop 85%, Turn 23%)
Hero wins 167.4 BB
The head scratcher for me here is whether he is doing this with an overpair and even some AK, which some will do in this pool, or if he is only jamming turn like this with exactly TX, in which case by the pure maths of the spot I dont think I am good to call with 20ish% equity vs 36% pot odds.
So my question is for spots like this: Do I put a massive nit villain (despite being a bad player in other ways) on exactly what he is representing and fold due to pot odds? I find it hard to rule out a stubborn shove with AA or KK on the turn, and the more 3 bet type hands I put in that he does this type of turn shove because he just cant let go of his overpair, the more I am inclined to call it off, because I can actually have a ton of equity here vs a basic tight/nitty 3 bet range. This is clearly not a good player, regardless of being a massive nit, so until I have proof he only ever makes this play with the nuts should I just be gritting my teeth and calling?