U
Ultra21
Rising Star
Silver Level
In cash games, you either face a rake or a time charge. One of the big parts of cash game play that I want to have a deeper understanding of is how the rake affects preflop play.
I understand that the biggest adjustment to make when the rake is high is to play tighter than normal. The idea is that you aren't being penalized repeatedly by entering pots that have lost value due to the rake. So is it correct to say that the rake affects implied odds in cash games by making it unprofitable to enter pots postflop with speculative to marginal hands (suited connectors, suited aces, smaller pairs, etc.)? Such hands require good implied odds and are marginally profitable in the long run, so the rake can potentially turn these hands into -EV hands via reducing the pot size and thus the implied odds are negatively affected.
I recognize that when the rake comes into effect also matters. For example, if the rake is taken preflop, then you would adjust by playing tighter. But would a good player also do the same if the rake is not taken preflop, but instead after the preflop betting has ended? Or would the player continue as normal, not considering the rake in adjusting preflop ranges?
It seems like to me, the rake has a negative effect on expected value and implied odds, hence why there's the notion you play tighter than normal. This way, you overcome the rake and not be penalized for entering multiple pots where the rake has reduced the amount you figure to win.
I would like some thoughts on my (definitely flawed) reasoning because I think the rake and its effect on cash games could be better explored than just "play tighter as the rake gets higher." I want to explore this game on a deeper level and I think good cash game play requires understanding how the rake really works.
I understand that the biggest adjustment to make when the rake is high is to play tighter than normal. The idea is that you aren't being penalized repeatedly by entering pots that have lost value due to the rake. So is it correct to say that the rake affects implied odds in cash games by making it unprofitable to enter pots postflop with speculative to marginal hands (suited connectors, suited aces, smaller pairs, etc.)? Such hands require good implied odds and are marginally profitable in the long run, so the rake can potentially turn these hands into -EV hands via reducing the pot size and thus the implied odds are negatively affected.
I recognize that when the rake comes into effect also matters. For example, if the rake is taken preflop, then you would adjust by playing tighter. But would a good player also do the same if the rake is not taken preflop, but instead after the preflop betting has ended? Or would the player continue as normal, not considering the rake in adjusting preflop ranges?
It seems like to me, the rake has a negative effect on expected value and implied odds, hence why there's the notion you play tighter than normal. This way, you overcome the rake and not be penalized for entering multiple pots where the rake has reduced the amount you figure to win.
I would like some thoughts on my (definitely flawed) reasoning because I think the rake and its effect on cash games could be better explored than just "play tighter as the rake gets higher." I want to explore this game on a deeper level and I think good cash game play requires understanding how the rake really works.
