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[QUOTE="RammerJammer, post: 324678, member: 2090"]
This is a spin-off of Diabloblanco's thread "Questions for the more advanced players", which is one of the liveliest we've had in a while.  Let me say up front that I'm a math idiot.  Don't get numbers, never have, never will.  I defer to others for my statistical poker information, as long as it's documented by a reliable source and not just something thrown into a forum post.

Here's one I don't get and have wondered about for some time, but have never asked.  Can someone explain these very basic odds to me?  The source is Mike Caro's table "The Probability of Being Dealt Specific Hold 'Em Hands Before the Flop" which appears in the appendices of "Super System".  Here are the odds Caro gives for being dealt pocket pairs:

AA - 220 to 1
KK, QQ, JJ - 72.7 to 1
TT thru 66 - 43.2 to 1
55 thru 22 - 54.3 to 1
ANY pair - 16 to 1

Why are the odds of being dealt AA any higher than being dealt 22?  Shouldn't the odds of being dealt any pair be exactly the same?  There are no more of any one rank in the deck than another.  52 cards, 4 each of 13 ranks.  If there were 4 Aces and 12 deuces, I could see the disparity.  But there's not.

Can someone enlighten me, please?
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